Thursday, 28 August 2025

Exemption of Income of any University or other Educational Institution Substantially Financed by Government [Section 10(23C)(iiiab)]

 The provisions of section 10(23C)(iiiab) grant exemption of income earned by any person established for the purpose of imparting the education and not for the purpose of profits which are wholly or substantially financed by the Government.

§  Under sub-clauses (iiiab) of clause (23C) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, educational institutions are totally exempt from tax if they are wholly/substantially financed by Government.

§  The condition is that such institutions should be solely for educational purposes.

§  The income of such organisation shall not be used for any private benefit, but it can be retained in the corpus for future purposes as there is no restriction regarding 85 per cent application of fund.

§  Only compliance under Income-tax law is the filing of income-tax return in Form ITR-7.

§  Such organisations are not required to apply for an exemption or obtain approval to claim exemptions.

§  Such organisations are not required to apply 85 per cent of their income during the previous year.

§  These organisations are not subject to any audit under the Income Tax Act.

Text of Section 10(23C)(iiiab)

[1][(iiiab) any university or other educational institution existing solely for educational purposes and not for purposes of profit, and which is wholly or substantially financed by the Government; or

Explanation : For the purposes of sub-clauses (iiiab) and (iiiac), any university or other educational institution, hospital or other institution referred therein, shall be considered as being substantially financed by the Government for any previous year, if the Government grant to such university or other educational institution, hospital or other institution exceeds such percentage of the total receipts including any voluntary contributions, as may be prescribed, of such university or other educational institution, hospital or other institution, as the case may be, during the relevant previous year; or]

KEY NOTE

1. Inserted by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 1998, with effect from 01.04.1999.

 

Pursuant to Finance (No. 2) Act, 2014, an explanation was inserted w.e.f. 01.04.2015 clarifying the term ‘substantially financed by Govt.’. Consequently, CBDT had notified 50% threshold for the expression 'substantially financed by Govt.'  vide insertion of Rule 2BB.

Text of Rule 2BBB

2BBB. Percentage of Government grant for considering university, hospital, etc., as substantially financed by the Government for the purposes of clause (23C) of section 10

For the purposes of sub-clauses (iiiab) and (iiiac) of clause (23C) of section 10, any university or other educational institution, hospital or other institution referred therein, shall be considered as being substantially financed by the Government for any previous year, if the Government grant to such university or other educational institution, hospital or other institution exceeds fifty per cent of the total receipts including any voluntary contributions, of such university or other educational institution, hospital or other institution, as the case may be, during the relevant previous year.

Furnishing of Return of income is mandatory [With effect from 2016-17]

By virtue of section 139(4C)(e), every educational institution referred to in section 10(23C)(iiiab) or section 10(23C)(iiiad) or section 10(23C)(vi) whose total income in respect of which such institution is assessable, without giving effect to the provisions of section 10, exceeds the maximum amount which is not chargeable to income-tax, furnish a return of such income of the previous year in the prescribed form.

Assessee, a Government-funded educational institution, was allowed exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) based on prevailing legal framework and facts of case, order of Assessing Officer could not be termed as erroneous or prejudicial to interests of revenue and, thus, same could not be set aside

The assessee university, established under the State Open University Act, 1994, was a Government-funded educational Institution. The assessee claimed exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab). Same was allowed.

Subsequently, the Commissioner (Exemptions) invoked section 263 primarily contending that the assessee was not wholly or substantially financed by the government for the relevant assessment year, thereby questioning the assessee’s eligibility for the exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab). He concluded that the Assessing Officer failed to properly examine whether the assessee qualified as substantially financed by the government. The Commissioner (Exemptions) believed that the Assessing Officer had overlooked critical facts, making the order erroneous and prejudicial to revenue interests. The Commissioner (Exemptions) highlighted that the Government grant only constituted 13 per cent of the total income, a figure significantly below the level required to classify the institution as “substantially financed” by the government. Therefore, he believed that the assessee did not qualify for exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab), which applies to institutions that are wholly or substantially financed by the government. The Commissioner (Exemptions) referred to rule 2BBB which defines “substantially financed” as institutions receiving 50 per cent or more of their income from government grants which came into effect from assessment year 2015-16. The Commissioner (Exemptions) set aside the Assessing Officer’s assessment order and directed the Assessing Officer to re-examine the case and re-adjudicate the issue of the allowability of the exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab), after proper verification of facts. On appeal:

Held : The assessee submitted that interest earned on Government grants should be considered part of government financing, as per Rule 230(8) of the General Financial Rules (GFR), which states that interest on Government grants must be returned to the Consolidated Fund of India unless otherwise stipulated. By including the interest income, the proportion of Government financing would rise to 54 per cent of the total receipts, exceeding the 50 per cent threshold required under rule 2BBB. The assessee contended that Rule 2BBB, introduced from assessment year 2015-16, cannot be applied retrospectively to assessment year 2014-15.

The legal framework prevailing at the time of assessment did not prescribe such a threshold. The assessee pointed out that in prior assessment years, such as assessment year 2010-11 and assessment year 2012-13, the Assessing Officer accepted the assessee’s claim for exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab). The facts and circumstances had not changed, and the principle of consistency should apply. The Assessing Officer accepted the assessee’s claim for exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) after examining the relevant facts and submissions. The assessee provided detailed calculations showing that when interest income on government grants is included, the government financing exceeds 50 per cent of the total income, thereby meeting the threshold for substantial financing. The Assessing Officer did not apply Rule 2BBB retrospectively, as the rule was introduced only from assessment year 2015-16. There was no legal requirement during assessment year 2014-15 to adhere to the 50 per cent threshold outlined in Rule 2BBB. Moreover, the assessee relied on judicial precedents, which support the inclusion of interest income in the calculation of Government financing. The Assessing Officer’s decision to allow the exemption based on the prevailing legal framework and facts of the case cannot be termed as erroneous. For an order to be prejudicial to the interests of revenue, it must result in a loss to the revenue. In this case, the Assessing Officer properly accepted the assessee’s exemption claim after considering the applicable laws and facts. The assessee’s income was primarily derived from government grants and regulated fees, and the Assessing Officer correctly determined that the university was substantially financed by the Government. The Commissioner (Exemption) conclusion that the Assessing Officer’s order was prejudicial to revenue is based on the incorrect exclusion of interest income and an erroneous application of Rule 2BBB for assessment year 2014-15. As such, the order passed by the Assessing Officer did not cause any loss to the revenue.

In light of the submissions, judicial precedents, and factual background, it is found that the order passed by the Assessing Officer was neither erroneous nor prejudicial to the interests of revenue. The Assessing Officer’s decision to allow the assessee’s exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) was based on a correct appreciation of the facts and applicable law, and the principle of consistency must be upheld. The Commissioner (Exemption) erred in excluding interest income from the government grants and in attempting to apply rule 2BBB retrospectively. Accordingly, the Commissioner (Exemption) order invoking section 263 is quashed, and the appeal of the assessee is allowed. [In favour of assessee] (Related Assessment year : 2014-15) - [Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar Open University v. CIT (Exemptions) [2025] 210 ITD 109 : (2024) 168 taxmann.com 92 (ITAT Ahmedabad)]

 

Assessee-university was established by State Legislature Act and was substantially financed by Government to extent of 31.76 per cent, it was eligible for exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab)

The assessee was established at Amritsar by State Legislature Act No. 21 of 1969. The assessee was residential and an affiliated university. The return of income as filed by the assessee was initially processed under section 143(1) but the case was reopened to examine various issues.

During the assessment proceedings the assessee, inter-alia, stated it was entitled for exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) and in support, it tabulated a chart of receipts of grants. The percentage of government grant as computed by the assessee vis-à-vis total receipts was worked out to be 47 per cent. However, the Assessing Officer recomputed the same to be 31.76 per cent. In other words, as per the findings of the Assessing Officer, the percentage of financing by government was to the extent of 31.76 per cent.

The Assessing Officer, in terms of rule 2BBB, held that the expression 'substantially finance' would mean that government grant should be more than 50 per cent of total receipts which was not the case here. It was noted that though this criteria was applicable from assessment year 2015-16, the amendment was clarificatory in nature as per CBDT Circular No. 01/2015, dated 21.01.2015. Since the assessee did not fulfill the said criteria, the deduction so claimed was denied and surplus of Rs. 61.57 crores was assessed to tax and the assessment was framed.

On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) held that extent of grant of 31.76 per cent was very low and it could not be said that the assessee was wholly or substantially financed by the Government in terms of statutory provisions. Accordingly, the assessment was confirmed. On appeal to the Tribunal:

Held : The impugned issue qua amendment to section 10(23C) and interpretation of 'substantially finance' prior to assessment year 2015-16 stood covered in assessee's favour by various judicial decisions of higher forums, the copies of which have been placed on record. The High Court of Punjab and Haryana in the case of CIT(Exemption) v. Swami Ganga Giri Janta Girls College (2024) 466 ITR 393 : 162 taxmann.com 677 (Punjab & Haryana)concurred with the finding of Tribunal that Rule 2BBB was not applicable for assessment year 2012-13 and the same was brought in force from 12.12.2014. The same clearly negates the action of the Assessing Officer. Even the CBDT Circular No. 01/2015 dated 21.01.2015 clearly state that the amendment to section 10(23C) shall take effect from 01.04.2015 and accordingly, apply in relation to assessment year 2015-16 and for subsequent years. Therefore, quite clearly, the amendment prescribing higher ceiling of 50 per cent would not apply for this year.

The interpretation of expression ‘substantially finance’, prior to amendment with effect from assessment year 2015-16, has been dealt in various judicial decisions. The Karnataka High Court in the case of CIT v. Indian Institute of Management (2010) 196 Taxman 276 : 8 taxmann.com 239 (Karn.) held that financing to the extent of 37.85 per cent would constitute substantial financing. In subsequent decision, the Court in the case of DIT (Exemptions) v. Dhamapakasha Rajakarya Prasakta B.M. Sreenivasaiah Educational Trust (2015) 372 ITR 307 : 232 Taxman 575 : 59 taxmann.com 33  (Karn.) again held that government grant to the extent of 25 per cent would constitute substantial financing. Following the decision in Indian Institute of Management (supra), the High Court of Punjab and Haryana concurred with the finding of Tribunal that government financing to the extent of 44.52 per cent would constitute substantial financing. The other decisions as placed on record well support this proposition and no contrary decision having similar facts is shown. Respectfully following all these decisions, it is held that the assessee was substantially financed by the government in this year and it was eligible to lay claim on impugned deduction as claimed by it under section 10(23C)(iiiab). Consequently, the other grounds as urged in the appeal have been rendered mere academic in nature and there is no fruitful reason to deal with the same. The Assessing Officer is directed to grant impugned exemption to the assessee. The appeal stand allowed in terms of above order. [In favour of assessee] – [Guru Nanak Dev University v. DCIT (2025) 175 taxmann.com 810 (ITAT Chandigarh)]

Assessee claimed exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) and Assessing Officer added entire cash deposits in bank account, interest income and payment to hotel and restaurant bills to income of assessee without allowing any expenditure, even if exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) was not allowed, entire deposits could not have been added without considering income on commercial basis and after allowing expenditure, therefore, order of Assessing Officer was to be set aside and issue was to be remitted back to him

The assessee-university claimed that its income was exempt under section 10(23C)(iiiab). Accordingly, it did not file return of income. As no return of income was filed, a notice under section 148 was issued requiring assessee to file return of income - However, no return of income was filed. Thus, the Assessing Officer added the entire cash deposits in the bank account, interest income and payment to hotel and restaurant bills to the income of the assessee without allowing any expenditure. On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) dismissed the appeal of the assessee on account of delay in filing the appeal. On appeal to the Tribunal:

Held : The assessee sought adjournment but the same was declined as there was no justification for seeking adjournment and no representation had been made either before the Assessing Officer or before the Commissioner (Appeals). The assessment order is ex parte and there was no representation before the Commissioner (Appeals) and the appeal was dismissed on account of delay. The Assessing Officer has added the entire cash deposits in the bank account, the interest income and also the payment to hotel and restaurant bills. No expenditure whatsoever has been allowed while the assessee claims to be a university which is substantially financed by the Government and the University Grants Commission and has claimed that its income is exempt under section 10(23C)(iiiab). Even if the exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) was not allowed; however, the entire deposits which were claimed to be out of the fee received and grants from the Government could not have been added without considering the income on commercial basis and after allowing the expenditure. Thus, the Bench was of the view that in the interest of justice, another opportunity may be granted to the assessee. Therefore, the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) as well as the order of the Assessing Officer are hereby set aside as the reasons for the delay are found to be justified and the assessee had a sufficient cause for the delay and the submission made have not been considered and the issue is remitted to the file of the Assessing Officer for framing the assessment de novo after considering the submissions which may be filed by the assessee in support of the claim and also in support of the claim that the exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) is allowable. Hence, all the grounds of appeal are allowed for statistical purposes. [Matter remanded] (Related Assessment year : 2015-16) – [University of North Bengal v. DCIT, Exemption (2025) 175 taxmann.com 680 (ITAT Kolkata)]

For claiming exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab), only two conditions are required i.e. university or other educational institution should exist solely for education purposes and not for purposes of profit, and second, university or other educational institution is wholly or substantially financed by Government; filing of return of income by assessee for claiming exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) is not mandatory

The assessee was a university established under the Haryana and Punjab Agricultural University Act, 1970. As per the objects of the university as stated in section 7, the university existed solely for educational purposes and not for purposes of profit, and was claiming exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab).

For the year under consideration, no return of income was filed by the assessee and thus, the Assessing Officer had reopened the case under section 147. Notice under section 148 was issued to the assessee requiring to furnish return of income. In response, the assessee filed return of income declaring income Nil after claiming exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab).

Thereafter, a show cause notice was issued to the assessee asking that as to why exemption claimed under section 10(23C)(iiiab) may not be disallowed. In response, the assessee filed reply stating that the accounts of university were prepared which were further approved by Joint Director, Local Audit, Chandigarh.

For the financial year 2017-18 the accounts of university was not approved by Joint Director within the time limit of filing of return of income as per section 139 and when the accounts were approved by Director, Chandigarh the time of return as per 139 had been expired. Now the university had filed its return of income in response to notice issued under section 148 and claimed exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab).

However, the Assessing Officer made disallowance of exemption claimed under section 10(23C)(iiiab) holding that claim of the assessee was not allowable as it had not filed its return of income in compliance to provisions under section 139(1). Therefore, claimed exemption was not allowable.

On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) confirmed the action of the Assessing Officer by denying the exemption claimed by the assessee under section 10(23C)(iiiab).        On appeal to the Tribunal:

The filing of return of income by the assessee for claiming exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) is not mandatory. For claiming exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) only two conditions are required i.e. the university or the other educational institution should exist solely for education purposes and not for purposes of profit, and the second, the university or other educational institution is wholly or substantially financed by the Government and in the case of the assessee both the above conditions are satisfied.

Further, the assessee vide letter signed by the Comptroller of the said university certified that entire funds received by the assessee was from State Government, Indian Council of Agricultural Research (Ministry of Culture) and other Ministries and government undertaking.

Therefore, the assessee satisfies both the twin conditions for claiming the exception under section 10(23C)(iiiab). Moreover, the Assessing Officer has not brought any fact on record that the assessee did not exist solely for education purposes and or for purposes of profit, and that the university or other educational institution was not wholly or substantially financed by the Government. Further, it may be mentioned that there is a specific provision under section 234F for the consequences for not filing of return in the case of an assessee, which is required to file its return of income as per the provision of section 139. Moreover, there are sections in the Act, wherein, it is mentioned that the claim of the assessee shall not be admissible, if certain requirements as per law are not filed along with the return. For example, sub-section-7 of section 80IA for claiming deduction under section 80IA(1) during the material period i.e. assessment year 2018-19 laid down a condition that the deduction under sub-section (1) from profits and gains derived from an undertaking shall not be admissible unless the accounts of the undertaking for the previous year relevant to the assessment year for which the deduction is claimed have been audited by an accountant, as defined in the Explanation below sub-section (2) of section 288, and the assessee furnishes, along with his return of income, the report of such audit in the prescribed form duly signed and verified by such accountant.

There is no such mandate in the provisions of section 10(23C)(iiiab) and section 139(4C)(e) that filing of return under section 139(4C)(e) by the assessee was a mandatory condition for claiming exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab).

Moreover, on similar facts, in the case of the assessee, wherein, on similar information, the assessment for 2019-20 was reopened by the Assessing Officer vide notice under section 148 dated 28.03.2023, wherein, the Assessing Officer had accepted the claim of the assessee vide assessment order under section 147 read with section 144B dated 19.12.2023, and held that since, the assessee was a university and was exempted from tax under section 10(23C) and no other details/evidence was available on record through which the contention of the assessee could be rejected and completed the assessment at Nil income filed as filed by the assessee on 17.11.2023.

Therefore, in view of the above facts and discussion, it is held that the assessee is eligible for exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) and the Assessing Officer and the Commissioner(Appeals) were not correct in not allowing the claim of exemption as claimed by the assessee. Therefore, this addition is deleted. In the result, the appeal of the assessee is allowed. [In favour of assessee] (Related Assessment year : 2018-19) -[Chaudhary Charan Singh Haryana Agricultural University v. ITO(Exemption) [2025] 174 taxmann.com 917 (ITAT Delhi)]

Assessee, an educational institution, received grant from Central Government which was utilized for purpose of institute as per memorandum of association and rules and regulations of society, assessee would be entitled for exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab)

The assessee claiming to be an Educational Institution namely Institute Management Committee Government Industrial Training Institute, Peth, Nashik. It is also claimed that the assessee institute is funded by the Central Government, Ministry of Labour and Employment. Return of income for the assessment year 2022-23 was filed claiming exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab). However, the CPC vide its Intimation order passed under section 143(1)(a) denied the exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) on the ground that the assessee institution was not substantially financed by the Government and therefore not eligible for the exemption claimed by it. Accordingly, the income of the institute was assessed at Rs. 26.13 lakhs. On appeal, the Addl/Joint Commissioner(Appeals) observed that the assessee was not recognized as a university by the University Grants Commission and that the assessee had not received any Government grant during the year and therefore not eligible for the exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab). On appeal to the Tribunal:

Held : The only issue that arises for consideration is whether the Addl/Joint Commissioner(Appeals) was justified in confirming the action of the CPC in denying exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab). Admittedly, the assessee institute is a Government Education Institute, and in the past received Grant of Rs. 2.50 crore from the Central Government, Ministry of Labour and Employment under the Institute Development Plan for Government ITI in the scheme ‘Upgradation of 1396 Government ITIs through Public Private Partnership’ and the said Grant has been invested in Fixed Deposit with Scheduled Bank. The main aim of the institute is to assist in improvement of standard of vocational training and skill development in the country as a whole and it functions on the principle ‘no-profit no-loss’. It indicates under the Public Private Partnership model assessee is working under the Ministry of Labour and Employment. The said grant has been applied for the objects of the institute by making Fixed Deposit during the year. The institute earned interest of Rs. 19.32 lakhs on such Fixed Deposit and Savings Account and the remaining amount is collected ‘Fees’ from the students.

Section 10(23C) provides that ‘any income received by any person on behalf of any university or other educational institution existing solely for educational purposes and not for purposes of profit, and which is wholly or substantially financed by the Government’. Admittedly, the interest received on such grant from the Central Government was utilized by the assessee institute for the purpose of the Institute as per the Memorandum of Association and Rules and Regulations of Society.

So far as the aspect of substantially financed by the Government, it is noticed that ostensibly the assessee received grant of Rs. 2.50 crore during the period 2008-09 to 2011-12 and the said Grant received by the institute from the Central Government was utilized making Fixed Deposit. So far as the gross receipts during the year is concerned, out of total gross receipts of Rs.26.13 lakhs the institute has received Rs.19.32 lakhs on account of Interest from Fixed Deposit made from Govt. Grant and Saving Bank Account and the same accounts for more than 50 per cent of Grant receipts during the year. These facts reveal that the assessee institute is substantially funded by the Central Government and the assessee would be entitled to exemption by virtue of provisions of section 10(23C)(iiiab).

It is found that the Jodhpur Bench of the Tribunal in the case of IMC of ITI v. ITO (2017) 82 taxmann.com 120 (ITAT Jodhpur) had an occasion to decide an identical issue by holding that where the assessee institute was financed by the Central Government; the amount granted by the Government was deposited in nationalized bank and interest so received from bank was utilised for the purpose of the institute as per memorandum of association and rules and regulation of the society, the assessee was entitled to exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab

Since the facts of the above case are identical to that of the instant case and also in view of observations made hereinabove, it is held that the assessee institute is entitled for exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab). Thus, the Addl/Joint Commissioner(Appeals) erred in affirming the action of CPC. The impugned order is therefore reversed. Effective grounds of appeal raised by the assessee are allowed. [In favour of assessee] – [Institute Management Committee of Government ITI Peth (2025) 171 taxmann.com 21 (ITAT Pune)]

Denial of Section 10(23C)(iiiab) exemption where University not ‘substantially funded’ by Government

Pune ITAT dismisses Assessee’s appeal, holds Assessee not eligible for deduction where it was funded to the extent of 41% of total receipts from Government grants; Relies on the Bombay High Court ruling in CIT v. Tata Institute of Social Sciences (2019) 105 taxmann.com 128 (Bom.) and observes that the meaning of ‘substantially financed by Government’ means cases where Government grants are more than 50% of total receipts; Assessee, a university formed under Maharashtra Universities Act, 1994, was not registered under section 12AA and claimed exemption under Section 10(23C)(iiiab) for the Assessment year 2011-12; Revenue denied exemption under Section 10(23C)(iiiab) on the grounds that Assessee did not apply Rs. 5.11 Cr. towards the objects and made an addition of Rs. 52.92 Lakh; On appeal, CIT(A) directed the Revenue to delete the additions but held that Assessee was not eligible for exemption under Section 10(23C)(iiiab) on the grounds that it was not substantially funded by the Government; ITAT finds Assessee received Government grant for Rs.6.20 Cr, including the grant for salary and capital grant during the year which is only 41% of the total receipt for the year; Opines that the Assessee was not substantially financed by the Government since the grants were less than 50%; Thus, holds that the Assessee is not eligible for exemption under section 10(23C)((iiiab). [In favour of revenue] (Related Assessment Year : 2011-12) - [The Punyashlok Ahilyadevi Holkar Solapur University Solapur v. ACIT [TS-541-ITAT-2022(PUN)] -  Date of Judgement : 22.06.2022 (ITAT Pune)]

Assessee was conducting various skill training programs for students to get placement, activities would fall within definition of education under section 2(15), thus entitling it for exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab)

The assessee society was engaged in imparting education and in the same process trained students by sending them to sports industries etc. It conducted various short duration training programs of computer training, training in Computer Accounting System, cricket bat manufacturing, carom board manufacturing, training in R/P workshop, wood workshop etc. The assessee got raw material from industries and after manufacturing the goods through its trainees, returned the finished goods after receiving its job charges. The assessee claimed exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab).

The Assessing Officer as well as the Commissioner (Appeals) declined the exemption on the ground that the assessee did not exist solely for educational purposes. The Commissioner (Appeals) had recorded further in his order that the issue of charitable activities of the assessee society being of charitable nature was not relevant in the instant case as assessee was yet to be registered under section 12AA. On the assessee’s appeal to the Tribunal:

Assessee-society, substantially financed by Government of India, was engaged in imparting education and in same process conducted various skill training/Research based education programs for students in manufacturing of sports goods and leisure equipments without any profit motive so as to enable them to get placement. Activities of assessee fell within definition of ‘education’ under section 2(15); thus, entitling it to claim exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab). [In favour of assessee] (Related Assessment years : 2010-11 to 2013-14) – [Process - cum - Product Development Centre v. ACIT, Meerut (2019) 175 ITD 517 : 103 taxmann.com 191 (ITAT Delhi)]

Exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) is not relatable to individual institution run under common umbrella of a Trust and, thus, if assessee trust satisfies statutory requirement of section 10(23C)(iiiab), exemption provision would apply, irrespective of fact that in isolated cases of a few institutions run by trust, said requirement is not fulfilled

The assessee was a registered Public Charitable Trust. It was running a large number of educational institutions. For relevant assessment year the assessee claimed exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab). The Assessing Officer noticed that there were three educational institutions run by the assessee which did not receive grant from the Government and whose total receipts exceeded Rs. One Crore during the relevant period. He was of the opinion that qua those institutions, the assessee's claim of exemption was not valid. The Commissioner (Appeals) upheld the order passed by Assessing Officer. The Tribunal, however, held that the exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) was in relation to the assessee and was not specific to the institutions individually run by the Trust. Accordingly, the Tribunal concluded that exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) was available to the society as a whole. On revenue’s appeal:

Held : The central question is whether the exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) is specific to the assessee trust or whether such exemption can be examined by further bifurcating the position of different institutions run by the assessee trust. The revenue's ground that the assessee trust did not exist solely for the purpose of educational activity, needs to be recorded for rejection. It is by now well settled through various series of judgments of the Supreme Court that an educational institution is not precluded from generating reasonable surplus. Merely because, in the process of running an educational institution, the surplus funds are generated, would not disqualify the institution from being an institution existing solely for the educational purpose.

Section 10(23C)(iiiab)) grants exemption in relation to any income received by any person on behalf of any university or other educational institution existing solely for educational purposes and not for the purpose of profit, and which is wholly or substantially financed by the Government. This provision, thus, exempts the income received by a person on behalf of the institutions specifying the requirements of the said clause. The exemption is not relatable to the individual institution run under the common umbrella of a Trust. Therefore, if the assessee trust satisfies the statutory requirement of section 10(23C)(iiiab), exemption provision would apply, irrespective of the fact that in isolated cases of a few institutions runs by Trust, said requirement may not be seen to have been fulfilled. From the above, it is very clear that it is the trust or the society that has to apply for registration and claim exemption. Had it been the intention of the legislature to grant exemption only to the institutions individually or independently and not to the society as a whole, the language would have been different. The society or trust may run more than one institutions. Therefore, the argument of the revenue that it should be institution specific and not the society as a whole is not correct. Thus, the view expressed by the Tribunal is correct. No question of law arises. The revenue's appeal is dismissed. [In favour of assessee] (Related Assessment year : 2008-09) - [CIT(Exemptions), Pune v. Deccan Education Society (2019) 101 taxmann.com 310 (Bom.)]

Grants Section 10(23C) exemption to Tata Institute applying subsequently inserted definition of ‘substantially financed’

Tata Institute of Social Science (assessee) is registered under the Societies Registration Act and Bombay Public Trust Act, 1966.  It is also registered as a Trust under Section 12­A of the Act for Assessment year’s 2004-05 and 2006-07. For the subject Assessment years, the assessee had filed its return of income, seeking exemption from tax under Section 10(23C)(iiiab) of the Act.  The Assessing Officer called upon the assessee to explain its claim for exemption on the issue of it being solely for educational purposes and being wholly or substantially financed by the Government. The assessee in its reply, pointed out that it was established solely for educational purposes and the grants from the Government were in excess of over 50% of the total expenditure incurred during year. Further,the  grants received from the Government were also in excess of 50% of the total receipts of the assessee.  Thus, on both the above yardsticks, the assessee claimed to be substantially financed by the Government. Therefore, it argued that it was entitled to the benefit of Section 10(23C)(iiiab) of the Act.

Further, the Assessing Officer accepted the claim of the assessee that it existed solely for educational purposes yet denied the benefit of Section 10(23C)(iiiab) of the Act on the grounds of not being substantially financed by the Government. The Assessing Officer held that the amount of Government grant of Rs.12.79 Crores as received was less than 75% of the total expenditure of Rs.16.87 Crores. The Assessing Officer applied the above measure of 75% by taking aid of / referring to Section 14 of the Controller Auditor General’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971 (“CAG Act” for short). Thus, the Assessing Officer held that the assessee was not substantially financed by the Government. On further appeal, CIT(A) allowed the appeal of the assessee, by taking the view that the provisions of CAG Act would not be applicable to the Income Tax Act in the absence of any reference to it. On further appeal, ITAT upheld the order of CIT(A) and dismissed the appeal of Revenue. Aggrieved, Revenue filed an appeal before Bombay High Court.

Bombay High Court upholds ITAT order allowing exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) to Tata Institute of Social Science (assessee) for Assessment years 2004-05 & 2006-07; Quashes Revenue's action in importing the meaning of expression ‘substantially financed by the Govt.’ from the CAG (Controller Auditor General) Act in absence of any definition in the Income-Tax Act for the period pertaining pre- April 2015; Though High Court refrains from holding the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2014 amendment to Section 10(23C)(iiiab) [clarifying the expression ‘wholly or substantially financed by the Government’ by setting out 50% threshold] as retrospective, it uses the same as an aid in construing the ambiguous provision”; Cites CBDT Circular No.1 of 2015 which embodied the said Explanation by stating that the absence of the definition of the phrase ‘substantially financed by the Government’ had led to uncertainty and litigation, thereby inferring the said Explanation was clarificatory in nature; High Court remarks that ‘if the Explanation is to be read retrospectively, the orders of the Authorities under the Act would be required to measure the satisfaction of the words ‘substantially financed’ in terms of an explanation i.e. qua total receipts and not qua total expenditure’; Further cites Supreme Court rulings in State of Bihar v. S.K. Roy AIR 1966 (SC) 1995 and Thirui Menickan & Co. v. State of Tamil Nadu AIR 1977 SC 518. wherein it was held that a subsequent legislation may be looked at in order to understand proper interpretation of an earlier legislation; Observes that assessee in present case had satisfied the 50% threshold in the context of total receipts as well as expenditure as per the newly inserted Explanation even in the pre-amendment period, thus grants Section 10(23C) benefit; Rejects Revenue’s reliance on the CAG Act, holds that the scope and the purpose of the CAG Act and the Income Tax Act are completely different and they cannot be said to be pari material. (Related Assessment year : 2004-05) - [Director of Income Tax (Exemptions) v. Tata Institute of Social Science [TS-152-HC-2019(BOM)] – Date of Judgement : 26.03.2019 (Bom.)]

Assessee-society running a non-profit educational institution claimed exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab), merely because assessee was simultaneously running profitable hotel, exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) could not be denied

The assessee was running an educational institution in the name and stay of Chandigarh Institute of Hotel Management and Catering Technology and assessee claimed exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab).

The Assessing Officer observed that the assessee had been running hotel management course, yet, simultaneously running profitable hotel in the name of Chandigarh Hotel Beckons. The Assessing Officer held that assessee was not existing solely for the purpose of education and without any profit motive and thus, not eligible for deduction under section 10(23C)(iiiab) and the same was accordingly disallowed.

On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) observed that even the assessee institution was not substantially financed by the Government, which means that the grant received from the Government should be more than of 50 per cent of the total receipts during the relevant year. However, in the case of the assessee, it was below 50 per cent. He, therefore, held that assessee even otherwise did not satisfy the condition of section 10(23C)(iiiab) that it was substantially financed by the Government during the year. The Commissioner therefore, upheld the order of the Assessing Officer. On appeal to the Tribunal:

Held : The assessee has relied upon the voluminous record to submit that the activity of the assessee in respect of the running of educational institute is separate and distinct from its activity of running of a hotel and that both the activities cannot be clubbed together. That separate books of account are being maintained in respect of both the activities. Further, that educational institute run by the assessee is substantially financed by the Government and that the grants received from the Government cannot be quantified in respect of total receipts of the assessee i.e. from educational institute as well as hotel, rather, the same have to be quantified in respect of receipts of the educational institute as the same are received for funding of the educational activity only of the assessee.

The provisions of section 10(23C)(iiiab) reveals that they are not specific to the total income of a person, rather, they talk of exemption of income received by a person on behalf of any university or educational institute existing solely for educational purposes and not for the purpose of profit which is wholly or substantially financed by the Government; meaning thereby that part of the income of a person which is received on behalf of any institute falling under the provisions of section 10(23C)(iiiab) will be exempt, it does not mean that entire income of the 'Person' should be from the institute solely existing for educational purposes and not for profit and substantially financed by the Government or that the 'person' is barred from entering into any business activity. Hence, as per the provisions of section 10(23C)(iiiab) that part of the income of the person will be exempt which is received from an institution solely for educational purposes and not for profit and is substantially financed by the Government. The claim of the assessee in the case in hand is for exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) is relating to the income received on behalf of educational institution being run by it solely for educational purposes and not for profit and which is substantially financed by the Government. However, the lower authorities have not examined this aspect. It is the claim of the assessee that separate books of account are being maintained in respect of educational institution run by it and that it is substantially financed by the Government and is not run for profit. In view of this, the matter requires to be remanded back to the file of the Assessing Officer to correctly apply the provisions of section 10(23C)(iiiab) and to examine and verify whether the educational institution run by the assessee, irrespective of the other activity of running of the hotel of the assessee, is run solely for educational purposes and not for profit and whether the said institution is substantially financed by the Government. If the institute is found to qualify the above conditions of section 10(23C)(iiiab), the assessee will be entitled to claim exemption in respect of income received by it on behalf of such educational institution accordingly the impugned order of the Commissioner (Appeals) is set aside and matter to be remanded back to the Assessing Officer and directing the Assessing Officer to decide the issue afresh in the light of the observations made above and in accordance with law. [In favour of assessee/Matter remanded] (Related Assessment year : 2013-14) – [Chandigarh Institute of Hotel Management & Catering Technology (CIHMCT) v. DCIT, Chandigarh (2018) 172 ITR 356 : 97 taxmann.com 280 (ITAT Chandigarh)]

To consider a university as wholly or substantially financed by Government as contemplated under section 10(23C)(iiiab), funds received from Government must be direct grants/contributions from governmental source and not fees collected from students under statute

The assessee-University had been constituted under the Visveswaraiah Technological University Act, 1994. It discharged functions earlier performed by the Department of Technical Education, Government of Karnataka and exercised control over all Government and private engineering colleges within Karnataka. For relevant assessment year, assessee declared nil income claiming exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab). The revenue authorities negatived the assessee's claim of exemption. The High Court also took the same view. On appeal to the Supreme Court:

Supreme Court by impugned order held that to consider a University as wholly or substantially financed by Government as contemplated under section 10(23C)(iiiab), funds received from Government must be direct grants/contributions from governmental source and not fees collected from students under Statute - Further, where grants/direct financing by Government during six assessment years in question had never exceeded 1 per cent of total receipts of assessee-University, assessee could not be considered as directly or even substantially financed by Government so as to be entitled to exemption from payment of tax under section 10(23C)(iiiab) and, accordingly, denied exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab). Review petition against above impugned order was to be dismissed. [In favour of revenue] (Related Assessment years : 2004-05 to 2009-10) – [Visvesvaraya Technological University v. ACIT (2016) 389 ITR 10 : 242 Taxman 247 : 73 taxmann.com 286 (SC)]

Assessee-society running educational institutions filed its return claiming exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) in view of fact that Government was substantially financing and interested in management of assessee, its claim for exemption was to be allowed

The assessee-society filed its return claiming exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab). The revenue authorities rejected assessee’s claim. The Tribunal, however, allowed assessee's claim holding held that the institution/society run by the assessee had received substantial government aid for the purpose of claiming exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab).   On revenue's appeal:

Held : A plain reading of section 10(23C) shows that any university or other educational institution existing for educational purpose and not for profit and is wholly or substantially financed by the Government is entitled to claim exemption under the Act.

In the present case, there had been financing by the Government when examined on individual institution basis to be ranging from 41 per cent to 82 per cent whereas when the percentage was taken for the society as a whole then it came to 44.52 per cent and 45.15 per cent for the two years. The Tribunal after appreciation of evidence held that the Government was substantially financing and interested in the management of the assessee and, therefore, were eligible for exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab)

In view of the above, the Tribunal was right in holding that the aid given by the Government to the assessee constitutes substantial finance by the Government which had entitled the assessee to claim exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab). No infirmity or perversity could be pointed out by the revenue in the findings recorded by the Tribunal. Consequently, finding no merit in the appeal, the same is dismissed. [In favour of assessee] (Related Assessment year : 2007-08) – [CIT v. Jat Education Society, Rohtak (2016) 383 ITR 355 : (2015) 64 taxmann.com 312 (P&H)]

Words ‘wholly or substantially financed by Government’ cannot be confined only to annual grants as apart from providing annual grant, if Government grants land, invests money in building and infrastructure and also running educational institution all that has to be taken into consideration to decide whether institution is wholly or substantially financed by Government in order to become eligible to claim exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab)

Assessee-institute was established in the year 1973. The entire property and assets of assessee-institution had been created out of the funds given by the Government of India. During relevant years, the assessee’s claim for exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) was rejected on ground that grant of the Central Government in those years was around 14.84 per cent and 6.84 per cent respectively and, therefore, assessee failed to satisfy requirement of being wholly and substantially financed by the Government. The Commissioner (Appeals) as well as the Tribunal allowed assessee’s claim. On revenue’s appeal:

Held : In order to be eligible for exemption under section 10(23C) three conditions have to be satisfied:

(1) The University or Educational Institutions should be existing solely for educational purposes;

(2) It should be existing not for the purposes of profit; and

(3) It is wholly or substantially financed by the Government.

The word “finance” has not been defined under the Act. Therefore, one has to rely upon the dictionary meaning of the word ‘Finance’.

The word ‘Finance’ means money given for establishing an Educational Institution or a University and not necessarily confined to the money given every year to such an institution by way of grant. Of course, in order to come to the said conclusion, one has to look into the nature of the institution which is established, the object for which it is established and how the said institution is financed, not only for establishing the same, even for running of such an Institution.

The assessee is a public institution, the revenue generated by the institution belongs to the consolidated fund of India. The Government after a conscious decision has permitted the assessee to retain and spend the revenue so generated for their maintenance/growth. In addition to that, the Government is providing grants both for recurring and non-recurring expenditure. The amount of such grant varies from year to year depending upon the short fall.

The assessee has been established entirely with the budgetary support of the Government. It is an institution wholly or substantially financed by the Government. The fact that this institution was granted land by the Government of Karnataka to the extent of 100 acres and the Government of India has funded initially 100 per cent and it has permitted them to retain and spend the revenue so generated for the maintenance and growth and the Government of India is also granting grant every year is not in dispute.

Under these circumstances, the contention of the revenue, that the grant which is given by the Government of India in a particular year is to be taken into consideration to decide whether the institution is wholly or substantially financed by the Government is without any substance. The words ‘wholly or substantially financed by the Government’ cannot be confined only to annual grants, apart from providing annual grant, if Government granted land, invests money in building and infrastructure and also running the Educational Institutions all that has to be taken into consideration to decide whether the institution is wholly or substantially financed by the Government.

The facts of this case and the material on record clearly established that the assessee was wholly or substantially financed by the Government and therefore, the assessee is entitled to the benefit of exemption under section 10(23C)(iiiab) of Act. Thus, there is no merit in these appeals and accordingly dismissed. [In favour of assessee] (Related Assessment years: 2003-04 and 2004-05)- [CIT, Bangalore v. Indian Institute of Management (2015) 370 ITR 81 : 275 CTR 424 : 226 Taxman 301 : (2014) 49 taxmann.com 136 (Karn.)]


 

 

Thursday, 17 July 2025

Exemption from income-tax in the case of statutory bodies or authorities for the administration of public religious or charitable trusts or endowments, etc. [Section 10(23BBA) of the Income-Tax Act, 1961]

Background

Finance Act, 1979

Exemption from income-tax in the case of statutory bodies or authorities for the administration of public religious or charitable trusts or endowments, etc. - Section 10(23BBA)

9.1 Section 9 of the Wakfs Act, 1954 provides for the establishment of the Board of Wakfs for each State for the general superintendence of all wakfs in that State. Section 8A of the Wakfs Act provides for the establishment of the Central Wakf Council for the purpose of advising the Central Government on matters concerning the working of State Wakf Boards and due administration of the wakfs. In the cases of public religious or charitable trusts or endowments of other communities, there are similar bodies set up under enactments in force in different States. These bodies or authorities set up by or under the Central, State or Provincial Acts are entrusted with the administration of public religious or charitable trusts within their jurisdiction. These public religious or charitable trusts also cover temples, maths, masjids, churches, synagogues, agiaries and other places of public religious worship, other religious and charitable endowments, as also societies formed for religious or charitable purposes under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. Such bodies or authorities, during the course of administration of such trusts or institutions, are at times in receipt of income chargeable to tax. Since these bodies or authorities do not carry on any activity for profit, the Finance Act, 1979 has inserted a new clause (23BBA) in section 10 to grant exemption in respect of income arising to any body or authority established, constituted or appointed under any enactment for the administration of such public religious or charitable trusts or endowments or societies for religious or charitable purposes. It has been specifically provided that the exemption under the new clause would not apply to the income of the trust, endowment or society and accordingly the tax treatment of the income thereof will continue to be governed by the other provisions of the Income-tax Act.

9.2 This provision has been made with retrospective effect from 01.04.1962, i.e., from the commencement of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Text of Section 10(23BBA)

[1][10(23BBA). any income of any body or authority (whether or not a body corporate or corporation sole) established, constitut­ed or appointed by or under any Central, State or Provincial Act which provides for the administration of any one or more of the following, that is to say, public religious or charitable trusts or endowments (including maths, temples, gurdwaras, wakfs, churches, synagogues, agiaries or other places of public reli­gious worship) or societies for religious or charitable purposes registered as such under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 (21 of 1860), or any other law for the time being in force:

 PROVIDED that nothing in this clause shall be construed to exempt from tax the income of any trust, endowment or society referred to therein;]

KEY NOTE

1.  Inserted by the Finance Act, 1979, with retrospective effect from 01.04.1962.

 

Categories of assesses to whom the exemption is available

The body / authority, which is established or appointed or constituted under any Central or State or Provincial Act, are the specified categories of assessee eligible for exemption under section 10(23BBA) of the Income Tax Act.

Conditions for Exemption

Any income of the specified categories of the assessee which provides administration of any of the following-

§  Public, religious or charitable trust; or

§  Endowments (including temples; Maths; wakfs; churches; gurdwaras; or other places of public religious worship); or

§  Societies for charitable or religious purposes (registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, or any other law for the time being in force).

It is very important to note here that exemption available under section 10(23BBA) does not apply to the income of any such trust or endowments or societies.

Amount of exemption available

The entire amount which qualifies for exemption under section 10(23BBA) is available as an exemption. There is no upper limit prescribed under the Act.

Posted On: 15 JUL 2019 6 : 51PM by PIB Delhi [Ministry of Education]

Government of India is running Seva Bhoj Yojana for providing assistance to charitable religious institutions for serving free food to public - Culture Minister

Seva Bhoj Yojna is a Central Sector Scheme for providing reimbursement of CGST and Central Government’s share of IGST paid by charitable/religious institutions on purchase of specific raw food items for serving free food to public / devotees.               

The specific raw food items covered under the Scheme are (i) Ghee (ii) Edible Oil (iii) Sugar/Burra/Jaggery (iv) Rice (v) Atta/Maida/Rava/Flour and (vi) Pulses.

Under the scheme of Seva Bhoj Yojna, the financial assistance will be provided for free ‘prasad’ or free food or free ‘langar’ / ‘bhandara’ (community kitchen) offered by charitable/religious institutions like Gurudwara, Temples, Dharmik Ashram, Mosques, Dargah, Church, Math, Monasteries etc.

These Charitable Religious Institutions should have been distributing free food in the form of ‘prasad’, ‘langar’/bhandara (community kitchen) to at least 5000 persons in a calendar month for at least past 3 years.

Criteria for financial assistance:

(i)    A Public Trust or society or body corporate, or organisation or institution covered under the provisions of section 10 (23BBA) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 (as amended from time to time) or registered under the provisions of section 12AA of the Income Tax Act, 1961, for charitable/religious purposes, or a company formed and registered under the provisions of section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013 or section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956, as the case may be, for charitable/ religious purposes, or a Public Trust registered as such for charitable/religious purposes under any Law for the time being in force, or a society registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, for charitable/religious purposes can apply under Seva Bhoj Yojna.

(ii)  The applicant Public Trust or society or body corporate, or organisation or institution, as the case may be, must be involved in charitable/religious activities by way of free and philanthropic distribution of food/prasad/langar (Community Kitchen)/ bhandara free of cost and without discrimination through the modus of public, charitable/religious trusts or endowments including maths, temples, gurdwaras, wakfs, churches, synagogues, agiaries or other places of public religious worship.

(iii) The institutions/organizations should have been distributing free food, langar and prasad to atleast 5000 persons in a calendar month can apply under the scheme.

(iv) Financial Assistance under the scheme shall be given only to those institutions which are not in receipt of any Financial Assistance from the Central/State Government for the purpose of distributing free food.

(v)   The Institution/Organization blacklisted under the provisions of Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) or under the provisions of any Act/Rules of the Central/State shall not be eligible for financial assistance under the scheme.

Quantum of assistance:

Financial Assistance in the form of reimbursement shall be provided where the institution has already paid GST on all or any of the raw food items listed below: 

(i)       Ghee

(ii)     Edible oil

(iii)    Sugar / Burra / Jaggery

(iv)    Rice

(v)      Atta / Maida / Rava /Flour

(vi)    Pulses

NOTE

This information was given by the Minister of State (I/c) of Culture and Tourism, Shri Prahlad Singh Patel in a written reply in the Lok Sabha today.

Exemption under section 10(23BBA) is applicable only to income of administrative body or authority constituted/appointed under Endowment Act and not to income of temple or endowment it manages

Assessee was a temple managed by the Endowment Commissioner under the Telangana Charitable and Hindu Religious Institutions and Endowments Act, 1987. It did not file return of income or the audit report in Form 10B and claimed that its income was exempt under section 10(23BBA), as it was managed by a Government authority, and alternatively, under sections 11 and 12. The Assessing Officer rejected the claim and held that the exemption under section 10(23BBA) was not available to the temple itself. On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) held that the temple was not eligible under section 10(23BBA) and, due to non-filing of return and audit report, also not entitled to exemption under sections 11 and 12. On the assessee's appeal to the Tribunal:

Held : In the case in hand, no doubt the administration of the assessee temple is given to the Administrator appointed by the State Govt. under the Telangana Charitable & Hindi Religious Institutions Endowment Act, 1987, in short, 'Endowment Act'. Therefore, the income of the said administrative body or authority is exempted under section 10(23BBA) and not the income of the temple or trust which is administered by the said authority. The proviso to this section makes it clear that nothing in this clause shall be construed to exempt from the tax income of any Trust/Endowment or Society referred to in the said clause. Therefore, the Legislature has made it clear without any ambiguity that only the income of the authority appointed for administering the temple/trust or endowment or society as referred in the said clause is exempt and not the income of the Trust/Endowment or Society itself. The provisions of section 10(23BBA) are not applicable on the income of the assessee temple but this provision is applicable only on the income of the administrative body or authority constituted/appointed under the Endowment Act.

The learned DR has submitted that the provisions of section 10(23BBA) of the Act are not applicable to the temple itself/endowment temples. In support of his contention, he has relied upon the judgment of the Hon'ble Madras High Court in the case of Sri Amirthakadeswaraswamy Devasthanam Dharumapauram Adheenam v. ACIT in [W.P. Nos. 29312 & 29315 of 2019 & WMP. Nos. 29115 & 29111 of 2019 & 2325 of 2020 WP.No.29312 of 2019 dated 18.02.2021] and submitted that the Hon'ble High Court has held that the exemption is extended to those bodies or authorities set up under the Central/State Govt. or provincial Acts that are entrusted with the administration of public religious and charitable trust/endowment that included within their ambit viz., Temples/Math/Waqf/Churches/ Synagogue/Agiaries and other placed of public religious worship. The Hon'ble High Court has further observed that these overseeing authorities are constituted only to administer or manage the affairs of religious and charitable endowments vested in them and do not engage in any commercial activities and therefore, any income that may arise or accrue to them would not bear the nature of the taxable income for the purpose of income tax Act. Thus, the learned DR has submitted that the assessee temple is not entitled for the benefit of section 10(23BBA) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 and liable to tax.

Accordingly, the provisions of section 10(23BBA) are applicable only on the income of the body or authority established, constituted or appointed by the State Govt. or the Central Govt. under the Central or State or Provincial Act for administration of public religious or charitable trust or endowments and not on the income of the Endowment i.e. Mosque/Temples/Church/Gurudwara etc., The amount paid to the administrative authority or body as constituted under the Act is certainly a statutory obligation on the part of the temple to pay such amount as per the provisions of the Act and to that extent, the same will be excluded from the income of the assessee temple for the purpose of computation of total income. Even otherwise, the public religious trusts or temples are eligible for registration under section 12A or 12AA and consequently, the benefit of sections 11 and 12 and therefore, the provisions of section 10(23BBA) are not applicable to these Trusts/Temples. Respectfully following the judgment of the Hon'ble Madras High Court in the case of Sri Amirthakadeswaraswamy Devasthanam Dharumapouram Adheenam v. ACIT (supra), we hold that the provisions of section 10(23BBA) are not applicable on the income of the assessee temple but this provision is applicable only on the income of the administrative body or authority constituted/appointed under the Endowment Act. [In favour of revenue] (Related Assessment years : 2013-14 and 2016-17) - [Venkateswara Swamy Devasthanam v. ITO(Exemption) [2025] 176 taxmann.com 183 (ITAT Hyderabad)]

Denial of registration was not valid on the ground that the assessee has wrongly claimed exemption under sections 10(23BBA) and 10(23C)(v) - Registration under section 12AA was not dependent either upon section 10(23BBA) or 10(23C)(v) - Directed to consider application under section 80G for approval afresh

Assessee-society, engaged in carrying of charitable and religious activity, filed an application seeking registration under section 12A. CIT (E) rejected the exemption on grounds that; firstly, assessee had without any approval wrongly claimed deduction under sections 10(23BBA) and 10(23C)(v); secondly, assessee could not explain source of investment made in construction of a new building and ; thirdly, assessee had received corpus donation in absence of registration under section 12AA  Held that wrong claim of exemption under sections 10(23BBA) and 10(23C)(v) would not debar assessee from getting registration under section 12AA as registration under section 12AA was not dependent either upon section 10(23BBA) or 10(23C)(v).  In response to query raised regarding investment in construction of building, assessee had furnished supporting evidence to explain such source. Receipt of corpus donation in absence of registration under section 12AA should not cloud vision of Commissioner (E) at stage of granting registration under section 12AA. There was nothing on record to suggest that either activities of assessee-society were not genuine or objects were not of charitable or religious nature. On facts the Tribunal directed the  CIT (E)  to grant registration. Fact that authority concerned was directed to grant registration under section 12AA to assessee, matter was to be remanded back to Commissioner (E) for considering assessee’s application  under section 80G for approval afresh.- [Sanatan Dharam Sabha v. CIT (2022) 218 TTJ 529 : 215 DTR 361 : 196 ITD 474 (ITAT Delhi)]

Assessee-Board constituted by District Judge under section 92 of Code of Civil Procedure for administration of a public religious charitable trust would be eligible for exemption under section 10(23BBA)

It is a case where a Board for management of the temple was constituted by the District Judge under section 92 of the CPC. The creation of the Board being under the Central Act of 1908 thus section 10(23BBA) of the Act of 1961 applied. The Tribunal accordingly dismissed the appeal preferred by the revenue while maintaining the order of the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeal). In our opinion, section 10 (23BBA) of the Act applies to a body or authority (whether or not a body corporate or corporation sole) established, constituted or appointed by or under any Central, State or Provincial Act which provides for administration of any public religious or charitable trusts or endowments etc.

In the instant case, the Board was constituted by the District Judge under section 92 CPC for administration of a public religious charitable trust. In view of above, we find that the Board was established under the Central Act, that too, for administration of a public religious charitable trust.

In view of above, section 10(23BBA) of the Act of 1961 has rightly been applied by the Tribunal. Section 11 and 12 apply where a body or authority is not created in the manner given under section 10(23BBA) of the Act but the case in hand is not covered by section 11 and 12 of the Act of 1961.

We find that the learned Tribunal has rightly decided the issue and the present appeal against the said order does not involve any substantial question of law so as to entertain it. We further find that similar issue was considered by the Orissa High Court in the case of Jagannath Temple Managing Committee v. CIT (2008) 299 ITR 56. The judgment aforesaid has been referred by the Tribunal while dismissing the appeal preferred by the revenue. The ratio propounded therein applies to the case. In the light of aforesaid, we find no illegality in the order of the learned Tribunal. The appeal does not involve substantial question of law. The appeal is accordingly dismissed. [In favour of assessee] (Related Assessment years : 2008-09 and 2009-10) - [CIT, Kota v. Bade Mathuresh ji Temple Board (2017) 299 CTR 198 : (2018) 99 taxmann.com 452 (Raj.)]

Petitioner-committee, constituted under Shri Jagannath Temple Act, 1955was entitled to total exemption from tax under section 10(23BBA); neither it could be asked to file return nor any direction could be given to bank to deduct tax at source from amounts due to it petitioner

The petitioner-committee was constituted under the Shri Jagannath Temple Act, 1955. It had been contended by the petitioner that section 10(23BBA) granted complete exemption to any income of any such body or authority established under the said Act as of the petitioner. The activities of the petitioner were concerned with the administration of a body which was solely engaged in public religious worship or in charitable purposes, and the said administration vested in a statutory committee which was set-up under the State Act. The petitioner challenged the order passed by the Income-tax Officer, to the effect that Letter No. 1015, dated 17-8-1995, issued by the Assistant Commissioner granting exemption to the petitioner under section 10(23BBA) stood withdrawn with an immediate effect. Apart from withdrawing the exemption, various other notices were issued to it under section 142 and letters to the bankers and others were issued under sections 201 and 201(1A) and notices under section 221(1) had also been issued which had been impugned in the petition.

Held that, admittedly, the said order was passed changing the petitioner's status relating to grant of exemption from payment of income-tax which facility the petitioner was enjoying since 1962. Therefore, the said order definitely visited the petitioner with civil consequences and affected its right in so far as its income was concerned. The principles of natural justice was, therefore, attracted to the situation. Admittedly, the said order had been passed without giving the petitioner an opportunity of hearing. Any post decisional hearing given to the petitioner would not comply with the requirement of natural justice. Further, in the instant case the petitioner was a body corporate with perpetual succession and a common seal and was created under section 5 of the shri Jagannath Temple Act, 1955. Therefore, the proviso to section 10(23BBA) would not apply to the petitioner and the exemption which had been granted to the petitioner under section 10(23BBA) was a total unconditional exemption.

It is clear from the CBDT’s Circular No. 4 of 2002, dated 16.07.2002 that the body or authority which is covered under section 10(23BBA) is not statutorily required to file any return of income under section 139 nor any tax is required to be deducted at source from such authority under section 194A. Therefore, in the instant case the direction of the income-tax authority in the notice purported to have been issued under section 142(1) for submission of return by the petitioner was contrary to the mandate of the said circular. Equally, the direction to deduct tax at source under section 194A in respect of income of the petitioner, which was totally exempted under section 10(23BBA), was not authorized under law.

The revenue had urged that the petitioner had no locus standi to challenge the notices and orders issued to the bankers for deduction of tax at source. In the instant case, if such tax was to be deducted from the income of its then its income would be reduced, whereas the petitioner's income enjoyed total protection from tax deduction under section 10(23BBA). As the petitioner was entitled to enjoy the total statutory protection under section 10(23BBA), no part of its income could be deducted by way of payment of tax and if it was so deducted, it amounted to unauthorized deduction of its income and against such deduction the petitioner had the locus standi to maintain instant writ petition. Therefore, the aforesaid argument did not hold good. The various directions which had been issued consequent to the said letter to the bank for deduction of tax (TDS) were, accordingly, to be set aside. The petitioner was not required to file any return under section 142(1) and the directions given by the revenue to that effect were unauthorized and of no legal consequence. [In favour of assessee] (Related Assessment year : 2005-06) - [Jagannath Temple Managing Committee v. CIT (2008) 299 ITR 56 (Orissa)] 

Thursday, 5 June 2025

Time limit for completion of Block Assessment of Search cases [Section 158BE of the Income Tax Act, 1961]

Section 158BE of the Income tax Act, 1961 provides the time-limit for completion of block assessment as 12 months from end of the month in which the last of the authorisations for search has been executed.

Order of block assessment to be passed within 12 months [Section 158BE(1)]

Sub-section (1) of Section 158BE provides that the time-limit for completion of block assessment will be 12 months from end of the quarter in which the last of the authorisations for search under section 132 was executed or requisition under section 132A was made.

§  Date of execution of last warrant of authorization: 10.11.2024

§  Last date for completion of Block Assessment: 31.12.2025

ILLUSTRATION:

Suppose a search is initiated against an assessee on 10.08.2025 and the last of the authorization for search is executed on 05.10.2025, the Assessing Officer shall be required to complete the block assessment by 31.12.2026 [i.e., 12 months from end of December 2025].

NOTE : Where in pursuance to fifth proviso to clause (a) of sub-section (1) of section 158BC, If an additional 30-day extension is granted for block return filing, the time limit extends to 13 months.

Excluded periods - Period (not exceeding 180 days) to excluded for computing the period of limitation under section 158BE(1) [Section 158BE(2)]

Section 158BE (2) provides that in computing the period of limitation of 12 months, the period (not exceeding 180 days) commencing from the date on which a search is initiated under section 132 or a requisition is made under section 132A and ending on the date on which the books of account, or other documents or money or bullion or jewellery or other valuable article or thing seized under section 132 or requisitioned under section 132A, as the case may be, are handed over to the Assessing Officer having jurisdiction over the assessee, in whose case such search is initiated under section 132 or such requisition is made under section 132A, as the case may be, shall be excluded.

Period of limitation for completion of assessment or reassessment for the block period in the case of the other person referred to in section 158BD [Section 158BE(3)]

The period of limitation for completion of assessment or reassessment for the block period in the case of the other person referred to in section 158BD shall be 12 months from the end of the quarter in which the notice under section 158BC in pursuance of section 158BD, was issued to such other person:

§  Date of issue of Notice u/s 158BC in pursuance of Section 158BD : 05.01.2025

§  Last date for completion of Block Assessment : 31.03.2026

Exclusion of certain period for computing period of limitation for block assessment under section 158BE [Section 158BE(4)]

(i)      Clause (i) of section 158BE(4) provides that the period commencing on the date on which stay on assessment proceedings was granted by an order or injunction of any court and ending on the date on which certified copy of the order vacating the stay was received by the jurisdictional Principal Commissioner or Commissioner; shall be excluded in computing the time limit for conclusion of the proceedings. or

(ii)     Clause (ii) of section 158BE(4) provides that the period commencing from the date on which a reference or first of the references for exchange of information is made by an authority competent under an agreement referred to in section 90 or section 90A and ending with the date on which the information requested is last received by the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner or a period of one year, whichever is less; or

(iii)    Clause (iii) of section 158BE(4) provides that the time taken in reopening the whole or any part of the proceeding or giving an opportunity to the assessee to be re-heard under the proviso to section 129; or

(iv)    Clause (iv) of section 158BE(4) provides that        the period commencing from the date on which the Assessing Officer directs the assessee to get his accounts audited or inventory valued under sub-section (2A) of section 142 and-

(a)  ending with the last date on which the assessee is required to furnish a report of such audit or inventory valuation under that sub-section; or

(b)  where such direction is challenged before a court, ending with the date on which the order setting aside such direction is received by the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner; or

(v)     Clause (v) of section 158BE(4) provides that the period commencing from the date on which the Assessing Officer makes a reference to the Valuation Officer under sub-section (1) of section 142A and ending with the date on which the report of the Valuation Officer is received by the Assessing Officer; or

(vi)    Clause (vi) of section 158BE(4) provides that the period commencing from the date on which the Assessing Officer intimates the Central Government or the prescribed authority, the contravention of the provisions of clause (21) or clause (22B) or clause (23A) or clause (23B) of section 10, under sub-clause (i) of the first proviso to sub-section (3) of section 143 and ending with the date on which the copy of the order withdrawing the approval or rescinding the notification, as the case may be, under those clauses is received by the Assessing Officer; or

(vii)   Clause (vii) of section 158BE(4) provides that the period commencing from the date on which the Assessing Officer makes a reference to the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner under the second proviso to sub-section (3) of section 143 and ending with the date on which the copy of the order under clause (ii) or clause (iii) of the fifteenth proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 or clause (ii) or clause (iii) of sub-section (4) of section 12AB, as the case may be, is received by the Assessing Officer; or

(viii)  Clause (viii) of section 158BE(4) provides that the period commencing from the date on which a reference for declaration of an arrangement to be an impermissible avoidance arrangement is received by the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner under sub-section (1) of section 144BA and ending on the date on which a direction under sub-section (3) or sub-section (6) or an order under sub-section (5) of the said section is received by the Assessing Officer; or

(ix)    Clause (ix) of section 158BE(4) provides that the period commencing from the date on which an application is made before the Authority for Advance Rulings or before the Board for Advance Rulings under sub-section (1) of section 245Q and ending with the date on which the order rejecting the application is received by the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner under sub-section (3) of section 245R; or

(x)      Clause (x) of section 158BE(4) provides that the period commencing from the date on which an application is made before the Authority for Advance Rulings or before the Board for Advance Rulings under sub-section (1) of section 245Q and ending with the date on which the advance ruling pronounced by it is received by the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner under sub-section (7) of section 245R:

PROVIDED that where immediately after the exclusion of the aforesaid period, the period of limitation referred to in sub-section (1) or sub-section (3) available to the Assessing Officer for making an order under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 158BC is less than 60 days, such remaining period shall be extended to sixty days and the aforesaid period of limitation shall be deemed to be extended accordingly:

PROVIDED FURTHER that where after extension of the period referred to in the first proviso, the period of limitation for making an order of assessment or reassessment, as the case may be, expires before the end of a month, such period shall be extended to the end of such month.

Block assessment within limitation period valid as search not concluded until ‘Restraint Orders’ lifted under section 132

Madras High Court holds that the block assessment order passed under Section 143(3) r.w. Section 158BC in Vedanta Ltd. (Assessee) case was within the stipulated period; High Court opines that for the purpose of computation of limitation what is relevant is not the date of initial search but the actual date of completion of search under Section 132; Highlighting the provisions of Section 132, High Court observes that there is a difference between “deemed seizure” as contemplated under the second proviso to Section 132(1) and the “Restraint Order or Prohibitory Order” as contemplated under Section 132(3); Outlining the explanation of “Restraint Order or Prohibitory Order” in Search and Seizure Manual 2007, High Court states that provisions of Section 132(3) stands exercised where it is not practicable to seize any books of accounts etc., and can be invoked only for reason other than those mentioned in the second proviso to Section 132(1), given it is not a deemed seizure; High Court emphasizes that the Search and Seizure Manual clarifies that as far as possible search of premises once started should continue till it is concluded; High Court reiterates that “Restraint Order or Prohibitory Order” under Section 132(3) will not tantamount to “deemed seizure”; Highlighting Supreme Court decision in VLS Finance Ltd. and others v. CIT and others (2016) 384 ITR 1 (SC), High Court observes that initiation and conclusion of search need not necessarily be concluded on the same day; States that the CBDT has also issued instruction that the search and seizure should be completed as early as possible and “Restraint Order or Prohibitory Order” should be lifted within the aforesaid period from the date of passing such orders; High Court opines that as long as the investigation is incomplete it cannot said that the search was completed for the purpose of limitation under Section 158BE; High Court states that the search of documents will be complete only after “Restraint Orders or Prohibitory Orders” passed are vacated after the search is complete; Examining the provisions of Section 158BC and Explanation 1 & 2 to Section 158BE, High Court opines that Section 158BE(1)(b) has to be read harmoniously with Section 132(3) which is fortified by the Supreme Court decision in VLS Finance Ltd.. [In favour of revenue] – [CIT, Mumbai v. Vedanta Ltd. [TS-698-HC-2025(MAD)] – Date of Judgement : 09.05.2025 (Mad.)]

Period of limitation of two years for block assessment under section 158BC/158BE would commence from date of Panchnama last drawn and not from date of last authorization

The short question which is posed for the consideration of this Court is, whether the period of limitation of two years for the block assessment under Section 158BC/158BE would commence from the date of the Panchnama last drawn or the date of the last authorization?

Dr. Rakesh Gupta, Learned counsel appearing on behalf of the respective assessees has vehemently submitted that in the facts and circumstances of the case, the High Court has erred in holding that the respective assessment orders were within the period of two years and therefore not barred by limitation.

It is submitted that in the present case the last authorization was on 26.03.2001 and therefore as per Explanation 2 to Section 158BE of the Act the last authorization would be the starting point of limitation. It is submitted that therefore even if the first authorization dated 13.03.2001 was executed on a later date i.e., on 11.04.2001, that would be of no consequence and for the purpose of reckoning the limitation period, the first authorization is irrelevant and it is the “last of the authorization” which has to be kept in mind. It is submitted that in the present case, the last authorization is dated 26.03.2001 which was executed on the same date and therefore the period of two years is to be counted from that date.

Shri Balbir Singh, learned ASG appearing on behalf of the Revenue has vehemently submitted that as per Explanation 2 of Section 158BE of the Act, when it is a case of search, period of limitation is to be counted from the date on which the last Panchnama was drawn. It is submitted that in the present case, the last Panchnama on conclusion of the search was drawn on 11.04.2001 and therefore the limitation period of two years would start from 11.04.2001. It is submitted that if the submission on behalf of the assessees is accepted, in that case, the Explanation 2 to Section 158BE would become nugatory and redundant.

It is further submitted by the learned ASG appearing on behalf of the Revenue that Explanation 2 to Section 158BE has been specifically inserted with a view to give last of the Panchnama as the starting point of limitation. It is submitted that the time for completion of the block assessment under Section 158BC/158BE is the conclusion of search/drawing of last Panchnama which will be relevant and not the dates of issuance of various authorizations. It is submitted that in a given case where number of authorizations are issued and relevant material/s is/are collected during the search on different dates on the basis of the different authorizations, ultimately the assessment proceedings would be on the basis of the entire material collected during the search and on the basis of the Panchnama drawn. It is submitted that therefore the date on which the last Panchnama was drawn is the relevant date for the purpose of block assessment. In support of his submission, Shri Balbir Singh, learned ASG has heavily relied upon the decision of this Court in the case of VLS Finance Ltd. & Another v. CIT & Another (2016) 12 SCC 32 (paragraphs 26 to 28).

Supreme Court upholds Delhi High Court ruling on interpretation of Explanation 2 to Section 158BE with respect to limitation period for completion of assessment under Section 158BC; Delhi High Court had set aside ITAT order by holding that the limitation period shall be reckoned from the date of last Panchnama though related to first search authorisation out of the two search authorisations; Assessee-Individual was subjected to search operation by authorisation dated 13.03.2001 for which the Panchnama was drawn on 11.04.2001 whereas prior to this on 26.03.2001 another search authorisation was issued for which Panchnama was drawn on the same day while the assessment was completed in April 2003; ITAT held that limitation period of two years from the end of the month shall be reckoned as per 26.03.2001, thus, held the assessment as time-barred whereas Delhi High Court held that the same shall be reckoned as per the date of last Panchnama i.e., 11.04.2001; Supreme Court relies on coordinate bench ruling in VLS Finance Ltd. & Another v. CIT & Another (2016) 12 SCC 32 wherein it was held that the relevant date for calculating limitation period would be the date on which the Panchnama is drawn and not the date on which the authorisation is issued; Supreme Court also observes that the date of Panchnama is relevant because the block assessment proceedings are initiated on the entire material seized during search operation recorded in the Panchnama; Supreme Court approves Delhi High Court’s view that the date of the Panchnama last drawn would be the relevant date for considering the period of limitation of two years and not the last date of authorisation; Rejects Assessee’s submission that the date of the last authorisation is to be considered for the purpose of reckoning limitation of two years by holding that it would frustrate the entire object and purpose of Explanation 2 to Section 158BE; Supreme Court, thus, dismisses Assessee’s appeals. [In favour of revenue] – [Anil Minda and Others v. CIT (2023) 453 ITR 1 : 292 Taxman 407 : 148 taxmann.com 407 : [TS-138-SC-2023] (SC)]

Second Panchnama prepared one year after authorisation, merely for extending limitation period; Quashes block assessment

Section 158BE, read with section 132, of the Income-tax Act, 1961 - Block assessment in search cases - Time limit for completion of (Computation of limitation period) - A search under section 132 was conducted upon premises of assessee-company on 07.11.2000 based on authorisation dated 04.11.2000. Said authorisation was executed on 08.11.2000 when search was completed and panchnama was made. On 10.11.2000 a search was conducted on basis of fresh authorisation dated 10.11.2000, On 04.12.2000, investigation team again conducted search upon assessee under same old authorisation dated 10.11.2000 and passed prohibitory order under section 132(3) and items were inventorised. On 07.11.2001, i.e., almost after a period close to one year, investigation team again visited premises under same old authorisation dated 10.11.2000 for conducting search and prohibitory order passed on 04.12.2000 was converted into deemed seizure under section 132(1)(iii). There was nothing searched on this day except passing of conversion order from section 132(3) to 132(1)(iii). Later on, A block assessment order was passed on 28.11.2003. Assessee submitted that revenue could not conduct search after almost one year on basis of an old authorisation dated 10.11.2000 and draw a panchnama concluding search. It contended that limitation under section 158BE should begin from date of last drawn panchnama i.e., 08.11.2000, and, thus, impugned assessment order passed on 28.11.2003 was barred by limitation. According to revenue, limitation would start from 07.11.2001 when order of deemed seizure was passed under section 132(iii) by virtue of Explanation 2 read with section 158BE and, hence, block assessment framed vide order dated 28.11.2003 was within limitation period. Mumbai ITAT quashes block assessment order passed in case of assessee-company, holds that the assessment order is barred by limitation; Search & seizure action was conducted on the assessee-company under the authorisation dated 04.11.2000 and subsequently on 07.11.2001, i.e. almost after a period of close to one year, the investigation team visited the premises of the assessee under the same old authorisation and stated that the search is finally concluded; Rejects Assessing Officer’s contention that the limitation as per explanation 1 to Section 158BE will start from the date of last panchnama dated 7-11-2001 and thus the order passed on 28.11.2003 was not barred by limitation, states that The Explanation cannot override the main section as it refers to authorisation” and the panchnama cannot be looked at in isolation but the same has to be read along with the authorisation pursuant to which the panchnama is prepared.”; Explains that every fresh entry after a gap of many days would require a fresh authorisation so as to enable the search party to enter the premises for conducting search, holds that Search based on one authorisation issued one year back, the department cannot conduct search after one year and draw a panchnama stating conclusion of search and thereby contend that limitation under section 158BE of the Act r/w Explanation 2 thereto should begin from such last drawn panchnama.”; Remarks that Department could not keep search action in abeyance for a long period of almost one year from date of last authorisation more so when after a period of one year nothing was searched but only prohibitory order passed one year back was converted into deemed seizure. Therefore, panchnama dated 07.11.2001 drawn based on authorisation dated 10.11.2000 was bad in law and, therefore, limitation could not be counted from 07.11.2001 but it was ought to be counted from 10.11.2000 or at most from 04.12.2000. Therefore, assessment order dated 28.11.2003 was barred by limitation. [In favour of assessee] (Block period 01.04.1990 to 07.11.2000) - [Narang International Hotels (P) Ltd. v. DCIT (2020) 185 ITD 324 : 118 taxmann.com 454 : [TS-417-ITAT-2020(Mum)] (ITAT Mumbai]

For purpose of limitation under section 158BE, period is to be counted from date on which direction under section 142(2A) is served on assessee and not from date of issue of direction by Assessing Officer under section 142(2A)

Notice was issued under section 158BC on 29.10.1999 according to the provisions of section 158BE, the period of two years would start from 28.02.1999 from the end of the month in which the search was carried out. Therefore, assessment ought to have been passed before 28.02.2001. However, in the interregnum period, the Assessing Officer had ordered to furnish the audit report as required under sub-section (2A) of section 142 on 18.01.2001 which was required by the assessee on 23.01.2001. The audit report was submitted by the assessee on 17.07.2001.

Therefore, the questions which came for the consideration is as to whether the order of the assessment which has been passed on 24.08.2001 is time barred or not.

Held : In terms of section 158BE Explanation 1 clause (ii), the period of exclusion will commence from the day on which the Assessing Officer gives a direction under section 142(2A) and would end on the day when the assessee furnishes such audit report. The date of issuance of the notice is the day on which the Assessing Officer takes a decision to get the books audited, when such decision is conveyed to the assessee then only it results into direction. A purpose of interpretation of clause (ii) above, would mean, the date on which the decision/notice is served on the assessee and not the date of issue of direction. In that view of the matter, January 23, 2001 will be the crucial date from which the period to be excluded is to be reckoned, and therefore, the period which is required to be excluded in the period from 23.01.2001 to 17.07.2001 from 18.01.2001 to 23.01.2001 it was only decision, and not the direction. The learned ITAT has thus committed no error of law in holding the assessment order to be time barred. In that view of the matter, the issue is required to be answered in favour of the assessee and against the Department. [In favour of assessee] – [CIT v. Amar Nath Arora (2017) 398 ITR 108 : (2018) 99 taxmann.com 428 (Raj.)]

Period between date on which interim order was passed by High Court staying direction for special audit under section 142(2A), and date when High Court set aside direction for special audit, should be excluded in counting period of limitation for concluding block assessment

A search was conducted at the premises of the assessee on different dates in following manner: 

On 22.06.1998, first search was conducted. It was followed by further searches from time to time. On 05.08.1998, last search was conducted. Consequently, a notice was sent, in response of which, the assessee filed its return for block period in question. Thereafter, a direction was issued to conduct special audit. On petition before the High Court, the assessee challenged said direction for special audit. The High Court granted interim stay on said direction. On final hearing, the High Court quashed said direction, however, it was held that period for which stay operated would be excluded in counting limitation period for block assessment. On appeal before the Supreme Court:

Held : Explanation 1 to section 158BE grants benefit of exclusion only for those cases where the assessment proceeding is stayed by an order or injunction of the court. On literal construction, therefore, it becomes clear from the reading of this provision that the period that is to be excluded while computing the period of limitation for completion of block assessments is the period during which assessment proceedings are stayed by an order of a court and this provision shall not apply if the stay of some other kind, i.e, other than staying the assessment proceedings, is passed. Provision relating to limitation need to be strictly construed.

As a general rule, therefore, when there is no stay of the assessment proceedings passed by the Court, Explanation 1 to section 158BE may not be attracted. However, this general statement of legal principle has to be read subject to an exception in order to interpret it rationally and practically. In those cases where stay of some other nature is granted than the stay of the assessment proceedings but the effect of such stay is to prevent the Assessing Officer from effectively passing assessment order, even that kind of stay order may be treated as stay of the assessment proceedings because of the reason that such stay order becomes an obstacle for the assessing officer to pass an assessment order thereby preventing the Assessing Officer to proceed with the assessment proceedings and carry out appropriate assessment. For an example, if the court passes an order injuncting the Assessing Officer from summoning certain records either from the assessee or even from a third party and without those records it is not possible to proceed with the assessment proceedings and pass the assessment order, even such type of order may amount to staying the assessment proceedings. In that context, the High Court, in the impugned judgment has propounded the correct and relevant test, viz., whether the special audit is an integral part of the assessment proceedings, i.e., without special audit it is not possible for the Assessing Officer to carry out the assessment? If it is so, then stay of the special audit may qualify as stay of assessment proceedings and, therefore, would be covered by the said explanation.

The question, therefore, is as to whether, in the given case, the High Court was right in holding that the special audit was not only a step in the assessment proceedings, but an important and integral step, in the absence of which an assessment order could not be made. In support of the aforesaid conclusion, the High Court referred to the judgment in Auto and Metal Engineers v. Union of India [1998] 229 ITR 399/97 Taxman 363 (SC) wherein this Court examined in detail as to what constitutes assessment proceedings. The Court in that case was interpreting Explanation 1 to section 153, which is pari materia to Explanation 1 to section 158BE which is relevant for instant case. The said provision was interpreted thus - the object of the Explanation seems to be that if the Assessing Officer was unable to complete the assessment on account of an order or injunction staying the assessment proceeding passed by a court the period during which such order or injunction was in operation should be excluded for the purpose of computing the period of limitation for making the assessment order. The process of assessment thus commences with the filing of the return or where the return is not filed, by the issuance by the Assessing Officer of notice to file the return and it culminates with the issuance of the notice of demand. The making of the order of assessment is, therefore, an integral part of the process of assessment. Having regard to the fact that the object underlying the Explanation is to extend the period prescribed for making the order of assessment, the expression 'assessment proceeding' in the Explanation must be construed to comprehend the entire process of assessment starting from the stage of filing of the return or issuance of notice under section 142(1) till the making of the order of assessment. Since the making of the order of assessment is an integral part of the assessment proceeding, it is not possible to split the assessment proceeding and confine it upto the stage of inquiry and exclude the making of the order of assessment from its ambit. An order staying the passing of the final order of assessment is nothing but an order staying the assessment proceeding.

Therefore, the High Court was correct in holding that the special audit was an integral step towards assessment proceedings. The argument of the assessee that the Court had quashed the order directing special audit would mean that no special audit was needed and, therefore, it was not open to the revenue to wait for special audit, may not be a valid argument to the issue that is being dealt with. The Assessing Officer had, after going through the matter, formed an opinion that there was a need for special audit and the report of special audit was necessary for carrying out the assessment. Once such an opinion was formed, naturally, the Assessing Officer would not proceed with the assessment till the time the special audit report is received, inasmuch as in his opinion, report of the special audit was necessary. Take a situation where the order of special audit is not challenged. The Assessing Officer would naturally wait for this report before proceeding further. Order of special audit followed by conducting special audit and report thereof, thus, become part of assessment proceedings. If the order directing special audit is challenged and an interim order is granted staying the making of a special report, the Assessing Officer would not proceed with the assessment in the absence of the audit as he thought, in his wisdom, that special audit report is needed. That would be the normal and natural approach of the assessing officer at that time. It is stated at the cost of repetition that in the estimation of the Assessing Officer special audit was essential for passing proper assessment order. If the court, while undertaking judicial review of such an order of the Assessing Officer directing special audit ultimately holds that such an order is wrong (for whatever reason) that event happens at a later date and would not mean that the benefit of exclusion of the period during which there was a stay order is not to be given to the revenue. Explanation 1 which permits exclusion of such a time is not dependent upon the final outcome of the proceedings in which interim stay was granted. [In favour of revenue] – [VLS Finance Ltd. v. CIT (2016) 386 ITR 407 : 289 CTR 256 : (2017) 81 taxmann.com 358 (SC)]